Therefore, I was wondering when those percentages and how you are 'suppose' to play the hands may or may not change depending on if the situation actually arises where the dealer does hit the soft 17. The reason I ask is that many times when I play where the dealer hits a soft 17 the situation never actually arises.
My question is this: If I am playing at a table where the dealer hits a soft 17, but during my play for however long, the situation never arises where the dealer has a soft 17, does that mean the percentages are the same as when a dealer stands on soft 17? So in other words, at a table where the dealer hits on a soft 17 those percentages are actually the same as where the dealer stands on a soft 17, until the situation arises where the dealer actually does hit on a soft 17? I know that the math says you should play at a table where the dealer stands on a soft 17, but sometimes those tables are difficult to find in Vegas anymore.
